Because that’s what makes it wrong. If “better life” for one is profiting off slavery and genocide and for the other its “chance at a peaceful life” then comparing them whitewashes the formers intention.
Edit: it also seems to elude everyone that literally the first line in my source goes against the “seeking a better life” line, so I don’t know why people think my source doesn’t cover that
No, the whole thing is wrong because its a false equivalence. “Better life” meant different things for the white settlers and the current immigrants.
Why is that relevant?
Because that’s what makes it wrong. If “better life” for one is profiting off slavery and genocide and for the other its “chance at a peaceful life” then comparing them whitewashes the formers intention.
Edit: it also seems to elude everyone that literally the first line in my source goes against the “seeking a better life” line, so I don’t know why people think my source doesn’t cover that